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Sunday 23 October 2016

Cardiovascular system MCQS



                          Cardiovascular system MCQS

1. Which of these is a function of blood?
a. clot formation
b. protection against foreign substances
c. maintenance of body temperature
d. regulation of pH and osmosis
e. all of the above
2. Which of these is not a component of plasma?
a. nitrogen
b. sodium ions
c. platelets
d. water
e. urea
3. Which of these plasma proteins plays an important role in
maintaining the osmotic concentration of the blood?
a. albumin
b. fibrinogen
c. platelets
d. hemoglobin
e. globulins
4. The cells that give rise to the red blood cells are
a. lymphoblasts.
b. megakaryoblasts.
c. monoblasts.
d. myeloblasts.
e. proerythroblasts.
R E V I E W A N D C O M P R E H E N S I O N
Seeley−Stephens−Tate:
Anatomy and Physiology,
Sixth Edition
IV. Regulations and
Maintenance
19. Cardiovascular System:
Blood
© The McGraw−Hill
Companies, 2004
5. Red blood cells
a. are the least numerous formed element in the blood.
b. are phagocytic cells.
c. are produced in the yellow marrow.
d. do not have a nucleus.
e. all of the above.
6. Given these ways of transporting carbon dioxide in the blood:
1. bicarbonate ions
2. combined with blood proteins
3. dissolved in plasma
Choose the arrangement that lists them in the correct order from
largest to smallest percentage of carbon dioxide transported.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 2
c. 2, 3, 1
d. 2, 1, 3
e. 3, 1, 2
7. Which of these components of a red blood cell is correctly matched
with its function?
a. heme group of hemoglobinoxygen transport
b. globin portion of hemoglobincarbon dioxide transport
c. carbonic anhydrasecarbon dioxide transport
d. cysteine on _-globinnitric oxide transport
e. all of the above
8. Each hemoglobin molecule can become associated with
oxygen molecules.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. unlimited
9. Which of these substances is not required for normal red blood cell
production?
a. folate
b. vitamin K
c. iron
d. vitamin B12
10. Erythropoietin
a. is produced mainly by the heart.
b. inhibits the production of red blood cells.
c. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.
d. production is inhibited by testosterone.
e. all of the above.
11. Which of these changes occurs in the blood in response to the
initiation of a vigorous exercise program?
a. increased erythropoietin production
b. increased concentration of reticulocytes
c. decreased bilirubin formation
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
12. Which of the components of hemoglobin is correctly matched with
its fate following the destruction of a red blood cell?
a. heme: reused to form a new hemoglobin molecule
b. globin: broken down into amino acids
c. iron: mostly secreted in bile
d. all of the above
13. If you live near sea level and are training for a track meet in Denver
(5280 ft elevation), you would want to spend a few weeks before the
meet training at
a. sea level.
b. an altitude similar to Denver’s.
c. a facility with a hyperbaric chamber.
d. any locationit doesn’t matter.
664 Part 4 Regulations and Maintenance
14. The blood cells that function to inhibit inflammation are
a. eosinophils.
b. basophils.
c. neutrophils.
d. monocytes.
e. lymphocytes.
15. The most numerous type of white blood cell, whose primary
function is phagocytosis, is
a. eosinophils.
b. basophils.
c. neutrophils.
d. monocytes.
e. lymphocytes.
16. Monocytes
a. are the smallest white blood cells.
b. increase in number during chronic infections.
c. give rise to neutrophils.
d. produce antibodies.
17. The white blood cells that release large amounts of histamine and
heparin are
a. eosinophils.
b. basophils.
c. neutrophils.
d. monocytes.
e. lymphocytes.
18. The smallest white blood cells, which include B cells and T cells, are
a. eosinophils.
b. basophils.
c. neutrophils.
d. monocytes.
e. lymphocytes.
19. Platelets
a. are derived from megakaryocytes.
b. are cell fragments.
c. have surface molecules that attach to collagen.
d. play an important role in clot formation.
e. all of the above.
20. Given these processes in platelet plug formation:
1. platelet adhesion
2. platelet aggregation
3. platelet release reaction
Choose the arrangement that lists the processes in the correct order
after a blood vessel is damaged.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 2
c. 3, 1, 2
d. 3, 2, 1
e. 2, 3, 1
21. A constituent of blood plasma that forms the network of fibers in a
clot is
a. fibrinogen.
b. tissue factor.
c. platelets.
d. thrombin.
e. prothrombinase.
22. Given these chemicals:
1. activated factor XII
2. fibrinogen
3. prothrombinase
4. thrombin
Seeley−Stephens−Tate:
Anatomy and Physiology,
Sixth Edition
IV. Regulations and
Maintenance
19. Cardiovascular System:
Blood
© The McGraw−Hill
Companies, 2004
Chapter 19 Cardiovascular System: Blood 665
Choose the arrangement that lists the chemicals in the order they
are used during clot formation.
a. 1, 3, 4, 2
b. 2, 3, 4, 1
c. 3, 2, 1, 4
d. 3, 1, 2, 4
e. 3, 4, 2, 1
23. The extrinsic clotting pathway
a. begins with the release of thromboplastin (tissue factor).
b. leads to the production of prothrombinase.
c. requires Ca2_.
d. all of the above.
24. Which of these is not an anticoagulant found in the blood?
a. ethylenediamenetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
b. antithrombin
c. heparin
d. prostacyclin
25. The chemical that is involved in the breakdown of a clot
(fibrinolysis) is
a. antithrombin.
b. fibrinogen.
c. heparin.
d. plasmin.
e. sodium citrate.
26. A person with type A blood
a. has anti-A antibodies.
b. has type B antigens.
c. will have a transfusion reaction if given type B blood.
d. all of the above.
27. In the United States, the most common blood type is
a. A positive.
b. B positive.
c. O positive.
d. O negative.
e. AB negative.
28. Rh-negative mothers who receive a RhoGAM injection are given
that injection to
a. initiate the synthesis of anti-Rh antibodies in the mother.
b. initiate anti-Rh antibody production in the baby.
c. prevent the mother from producing anti-Rh antibodies.
d. prevent the baby from producing anti-Rh antibodies.
29. The blood test that distinguishes between leukocytosis and
leukopenia is
a. type and crossmatch.
b. hematocrit.
c. platelet count.
d. complete blood count.
e. prothrombin time measurement.
30. An elevated neutrophil count is usually indicative of
a. an allergic reaction.
b. a bacterial infection.
c. a viral infection.
d. a parasitic infection.
e. increased antibody production.
Answers in Appendix F
1. In hereditary hemolytic anemia, massive destruction of red blood
cells occurs.Would you expect the reticulocyte count to be above or
below normal? Explain why one of the symptoms of the disease is
jaundice. In 1910, it was discovered that hereditary hemolytic
anemia could be successfully treated by removing the spleen.
Explain why this treatment is effective.
2. Red Packer, a physical education major, wanted to improve his
performance in an upcoming marathon race. About 6 weeks before
the race, 500 mL of blood was removed from his body, and the
formed elements were separated from the plasma. The formed
elements were frozen, and the plasma was reinfused into his body.
Just before the competition, the formed elements were thawed and
injected into his body. Explain why this procedure, called blood
doping or blood boosting, would help Red’s performance. Can you
suggest any possible bad effects?
3. Chemicals like benzene and chloramphenicol can destroy red bone
marrow and cause aplastic anemia.What symptoms develop as a
result of the lack of (a) red blood cells, (b) platelets, and (c) white
blood cells?
4. Some people habitually use barbiturates to depress feelings of
anxiety. Barbiturates cause hypoventilation, which is a slower-thannormal
rate of breathing, because they suppress the respiratory
centers in the brain.What happens to the red blood count of a
habitual user of barbiturates? Explain.
5. What blood problems would you expect to observe in a patient after
total gastrectomy (removal of the stomach)? Explain.
6. According to the old saying, “Good food makes good blood.”Name
three substances in the diet that are essential for “good blood.”What
blood disorders develop if these substances are absent from the diet?
Answers in Appendix G
C R

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